I just cant let this go




the receivables from Q 1  Q2 or Q 3 may not  be  over due- they  may set up  contracts- meaning managment were not caught with pants down- these receivables were never due  in the first place  for months and months- so why would you think they would be paid???  If  you set up 8 months of sales  in advance in accounts receivable- and agree with customer that they pay once a month over 8 months then really are receivables over due???  Again I dont know this- its specualtion on my part


no idea why people cant grasp this point

should get a thrid glass of a great  italian wine and read a book!!!