I just cant let this go
the receivables from Q 1 Q2 or Q 3 may not be over due- they may set up contracts- meaning managment were not caught with pants down- these receivables were never due in the first place for months and months- so why would you think they would be paid??? If you set up 8 months of sales in advance in accounts receivable- and agree with customer that they pay once a month over 8 months then really are receivables over due??? Again I dont know this- its specualtion on my part
no idea why people cant grasp this point
should get a thrid glass of a great italian wine and read a book!!!