My earlier point was- were those really due receivables but in fact tbooking rentals in advance???
I really dont know
fFr example, if they booked revenue based on contracts over time - say taking in 200,,000 dollars into income and receivables when contract was signed ( which they count as current IBITDA ) when rents were say 17,000 a month over 12 months , then really a lot of those receivables were not due--they are not over due receivables- and thats where the issue is. If this is true, and I dont know if it is,, its sheer speculation, then bank loan is 100% due to dividend
I have no idea why I am writing these long notes so will stop and get a good glass of wine
there are a lot of questions to be answered- I hate to see deception and I truly hope it did not happen
but why would anyone buy without knowing the real answers??
go to vegas
odds are a lot better