My earlier point was- were  those really due  receivables but in fact tbooking rentals in advance??? 

I really dont know 

fFr example, if they booked revenue based on contracts over time - say taking in 200,,000 dollars  into income and receivables when contract was signed ( which they count as current IBITDA )  when rents were say  17,000 a month over 12 months ,  then really a lot of those receivables were not due--they are not over due receivables- and thats where the issue is. If this is true, and I dont know if it is,, its sheer speculation, then bank loan is 100% due to dividend


I have no idea why I am writing these long notes so will stop and get a good glass of wine

there are a lot of questions to be answered- I hate to see deception and I truly hope it did not happen 

but why would anyone buy without knowing the real answers??

go to vegas

odds are a lot better