They reduce debt payments by $1M per month but agree to pay $5.6M plus escalating interest within 6 months. Other than buying the company a few months someone tell me how this does not lead to further dilution in ownership stake? The writing would appear to be on the wall, they will have to raise more funds or lose additional stake to satisfy this term of the JV. GGN confirmed this. Of note, they conveniently left this FACT out of latest financial NR... not worth reinding shareholders?... it is in MD&A. Why would GGN agree to a term they cannot possibly meet without raising additional funds. Also of note, none of this considers additional capital contributions to JV. How does GGN come up with these funds? >